Why does Paul say "seed" and not "seeds" in Galatians 3:16 when the Hebrew word is collective?

Whosoever Will, The Weight of a Single Letter: First, Paul knows the word is collective, because he uses it collectively himself thirteen verses later. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise (Galatians 3:29). Same word, used of a multitude, same author, same argument. A man does not forget the meaning of a word between verse 16 and verse 29. Second, the collective sense is exactly what makes the singular form significant. Zera is morphologically singular. Hebrew has ways of saying plural offspring outright, and Greek has spermata sitting right there available. God did not use them. He chose a word that holds the many and the one in the same syllable, and He used it in a promise that logically cannot apply to the many. Paul is not claiming the word must be singular. He is claiming it is permitted to be singular in a promise that requires it to be, and that this is precisely what God intended. That is not sloppy exegesis. That is reading a text the way its Author wrote it. Scripture, King James Version: Galatians 3:29, "And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise."; Galatians 3:16, "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.".

Verified. Every scripture quotation on this page has been checked word-for-word against the King James text. Last reviewed 2026-10-18.